Monday, August 24, 2009

Debate Questions

Here are the questions I asked John on the first night of our discussion, when I was in the negative.

Question # 1

1. "What change of heart, soul, mind, or spirit, takes place in water baptism that has not already occurred at the point of penitent faith?"

I felt that this was the single most important question asked during the debate. It is the pivotal question to be asked in the discussion over what is the nature of the salvation or conversion experience. This question helped draw the line of distinction between what Baptists and what Campbellites or Restorationists believe about the nature, causes, and effects of the salvation experience.

In my second and third speeches on the second night, I summed up this difference by pointing out the condition of John (by his own admission) before he walked down into the waters of baptism. But, I will save narrating this summation in a separate posting.

Question # 2

2. Is water baptism essential for circumcision of heart and for entering the kingdom of God?

This too is an important question. It causes us to focus on what is denoted by "circumcision of heart." Those who are saved are the same as those who have experienced a "circumcision" in their inner beings, in heart, soul, spirit, or mind. This circumcision, I argued, is not primarily an external or legal action, non-experiential, but an internal or character transforming experience, describing the same phenomenon that is elsewhere described, in scripture, as being a rebirth, and resurrection, or new creation, and other such terms. I showed that these terms for conversion denote what occurs in coming to evangelical faith and repentance and, by their very nature, are experienced before water baptism. I argued that all believers, no matter when they lived, had experienced this inner circumcision. Abraham experienced circumcision of heart, but not because he had been baptized in water. The thief on the cross, who believed and turned to the Lord, and to whom Christ promised eternal rest in paradise, also experienced this inner circumcision, but not because he had been baptized in water. I gave other examples.

Question # 3

3. If being baptized is equated with being "begotten" of God, then how could Paul consistently say that he had "begotten" the Corinthians, while saying at the same time, that he had only baptized few of them? (I Cor. 1: 14-16; 4: 15)

I think this argument is irrefutable and speaks for itself. John's oral handling of this question was no better than his written answer which said - "He taught them they must be baptized. Such teaching is an essential part of the begetal process." I really need not say more.

Question # 4

4. If one loses salvation, does he become an "alien sinner" with need to have his "past sins" forgiven?

This question was a "hot potato" for John as it is for all his brethren. He at least must acknowledge that some "alien sinners" (those who lost their salvation) may be cleansed and forgiven apart from water baptism. I also argued that the baptism of the soul, mind, or spirit, into Christ and his blood preceded the baptism of the body, the latter being a symbol or outward expression of the former.

Question # 5

5. How were sinners saved under the Old Testament?

John's written answer - "By obedient faith" (Romans 4: 1-8)." l showed throughout the debate that obedient faith existed before water baptism and did not depend upon it for its creation, as John affirmed.

Question # 6

6. Was your faith living or dead before baptism?

John did not deny that his faith was "dead" before water baptism. This is the position of the "Churches of Christ" that John represents. Their faith, they say, was "dead" until they came forth from the waters of baptism. But, more on this point in other postings.

2nd Night's Questions for John Gentry

Question # 1

1. Did the thief on the cross contact the blood? If so, when and how?

He argued that the thief could "contact the blood" without water baptism because he was getting saved before the death of Christ, which is the precise point when water baptism would become a sine qua non of salvation. This would later become a problem for him for these reasons (expressed in rhetorical form):

1. Why is Nicodemus being told that he must be "born of water" (which to John meant water baptism) when Christ's death was years away? Shouldn't he be telling him simply to believe and repent? Or, does it not prove that "born of water" cannot be the result of John's baptizing?

2. Is John the Baptist preaching baptism "for the remission" of sins, then, or not?

3. Then none of the spiritual and salvation blessings enjoyed by O.T. believers was because of the New Covenant?

Question # 2

2. When and how does one eat Christ to life and salvation?

His written answer was - "When you believe and obey - John 6: 63 & Mark 15: 15, 16 for those who live under the Great Commission."

Thus, according to John, one does not ingest Christ into himself when he unites his heart to him in faith and repentance, but when you are baptized in water. Baptism becomes the true Lord's
Supper! The point when one eats the bread of life!

Question # 3

3. When do the spiritually dead hear the voice of the Son of God and live?

John said when they obey the word (final step), which is the act of water baptism. I showed that such a position affirms that the sinner was not obeying when he believed, repented, confessed, or came to love and know the Lord. According to John, all this occurred in the act of water baptism. This is when and where they heard the voice of the Son of God and came to "life." I thought this was such an outstanding absurdity that needed but exposing.

Question # 4

4. Is obeying God in water baptism a good work or work of righteousness?

John wrote - "Neither, the Bible says it is the work of God. Col. 2: 12"

I later made an argument where I said "I think John agrees that it is a good work and work of righteousness," but John later accused me of saying that I "misrepresented him." He argued that baptism was a "work of God." In taking this position, John was put in the position of 1) affirming that baptism is not a "good work" nor a "righteous work," and 2) of affirming that baptism is what God does, and not what we do. Thus, it is not a "work of righteousness which WE HAVE DONE," but a "work of righteousness which GOD HAS DONE."

From Eph. 2: 8-10 I showed how "good works," like water baptism, follow faith and the new creation, and thus his proposition is false, if baptism is a "good work." From Titus 3: 5 I showed how water baptism could not be equated with the "bath of regeneration" because this would contradict the part of the verse that says "not by works righteousness which we have done."

Question # 5

5. Does the word "baptize" always denote immersion of the whole person in water?

John said "no." This was later quite important, because, sometimes "baptized into Christ" simply means "placed into Christ" and this, I showed, occurred at the point of faith. I later showed how there are more passages that speak of sinners "believing into (eis) Christ."

Question # 6

6. Is Christ's baptism part of the "one baptism" (Eph. 4:5)?

John said "no."

3 comments:

Steve Halbrook said...

Stephen,
Not sure how busy you are, but I could definitely use your help with a couple arguments I have against baptismal regeneration.

I had a couple possible refutations of prooftexts used to say water baptism saves, and was wondering if you could critique them to see if they are sound?

I appreciate your ability to refute baptismal regeneration prooftexts. The reason I ask for your critique is that I plan to post these arguments on a public blog, and since I haven't heard these arguments often, I want to have them critiqued,just to make sure I am interpreting God's Word right. (If you are busy, no problem, I certainly understand what that is like!)

The two prooftexts I'm addressing are Acts 22:16 and Mark 16:16. My arguments are below, and I include questions and comments in brackets.

Stephen, thanks in advance for your time, and whatever advice you can give, if possible. God bless!
Steve

Steve Halbrook said...

1. Regarding Acts 22:16, even if this connects water baptism with forgiveness of sins [personally, I agree with MacArthur that "wash away your sins," is connected with "calling on his name," not "be baptized"], it can only be symbolic of forgiveness of sins (like animal sacrifices and the Lord's Supper), since Paul received the Gospel--and was thereby saved--on the road to Damascus.

[Many have their "refutations" against other texts possibly in support of Paul's conversion, but I think the following can't be argued against].

Galatians 1:12 reads: "For I did not receive it [the Gospel]from any man, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ."

Paul received the Gospel--and was thereby saved--on the Road to Damascus ("through a revelation of Jesus Christ," not from a man), which means Acts 22:16 cannot mean a literal forgiveness of sins, and Paul was saved prior to it.

[I'm not an expert in Greek--is it a possibility "received" here means that he simply heard the Gospel, instead of truly embracing it--in which case one could argue that a seed was planted, but the conversion didn't occur until Acts 22? On the one hand, perhaps 1 Corinthians 15:1 is saying receive the Gospel is truly accepting it:

"Now I would remind you, brothers, of the gospel I preached to you, which you received, in which you stand,"; on the other, I wonder if receive the Gospel can mean to simply hear the Gospel in the context of Galatians. Paul says
"As we have said before, so now I say again: If anyone is preaching to you a gospel contrary to the one you received, let him be accursed."(Galatians 1:9), but then entertains the possibility that they didn't have a saving reception (Gal. 3:4)]

Confirmation that Paul received the Gospel inwardly, from the heart, is in Gal. 1:15 and 16, where Paul says, "But when God, who set me apart from birth and called me by his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son in me..."

The text says God revealed His Son in Paul, which means inward conversion. [this is the NIV translation--is this reliable? The ESV says "was pleased to reveal his Son to me,' and "to me," unlike "in me," doesn't sound like inward conversion]

Steve Halbrook said...

2. Regarding Mark 16:16:
The most natural interpretation of Mark 16:16 is that it is talking about Holy Spirit baptism.

1. The next two verses (17 and 18)list signs that accompany Holy Spirit baptism, such as casting out demons, speaking in tongues, and healing the sick. (Whether anyone today baptized by the Holy Spirit can do such things is besides the point.)

2. The text can seem confusing if it is talking about water baptism, since the first clause says one who believes and is baptized will be saved, while one who does not believe shall condemned. But the text does not explicitly say one way or another the eternal destiny of those who believe but are not baptized in water.

While the full counsel of God is clear that one can have saving faith without being water baptized (see, for example, Romans 4:1-12), that Mark 16:16 is not clear on this can seem counterintuitive.

But if the text is talking about Spirit baptism, the absence of baptism in the second clause can be easily explained. This is because regarding saving faith and Holy Spirit baptism, one cannot receive one without receiving the other. For instance,
Galatians 3 says those with saving faith are baptized with the Holy Spirit:

“But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian, for in Christ Jesus you are all sons of God, through faith. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” (Galatians 3:25-27) (compare this and verse 28 with 1 Cor. 12:13,
a parallel passage that is explicitly about Holy Spirit baptism.)

Thus, if the baptism in the first clause of Mark 16:16 is Holy Spirit baptism, the absence of “baptism” in the second clause can be explained, in that everyone who believes has Holy Spirit baptism, and everyone who does not is presumed to not have Holy Spirit baptism. Thus, “whoever does not believe will be condemned” would mean “whoever does not believe (and is baptized in the Holy Spirit) will be condemned.”

However, while saving faith and Holy Spirit baptism are inseparable, saving faith and water baptism are separable. One can be baptized in water but lack saving faith, and one can have saving faith but not be baptized in water. And so if Mark 16:16 does refer to water baptism, water baptism cannot be presumed in its second clause (“whoever does not believe will be condemned”)—in which case one is left wondering why “baptism” is mentioned in the first clause at all.

3. Of course, even if Mark 16:16 is talking about water baptism, the immediate context refutes that water baptism plays a role in salvation. Those who believe water baptism saves deny that one is transformed by the Holy Spirit in any way until after water baptism. But verses 17 and 18 mention that those who believe manifest certain signs, such as tongues and healing the sick. These are signs that accompany Holy Spirit baptism. (Again, whether anyone today baptized by the Holy Spirit can do such things is besides the point.)

The text does not say those who believe and are baptized (in water) manifest these signs that accompany Holy Spirit baptism. The implication then is that believers in general are baptized with the Holy Spirit, not just believers who receive water baptism. [feel free to point out any logical flaws I've made here!]